Updated: January 2003
Using this study guide:
1.
Read through the objectives
of the course
2.
Complete the practice test
3.
Use the key to score your exam
The key follows the practice exam
Course Text
Audeskirk, T. and Audesirk, G (2001) Biology: Life on Earth 6
th
Edition.
Upper Saddle River: Prentice Hall, Inc
Companion web
site: http://www.prenhall.com/audesirk/
1.
A scientific theory
a.
is a general explanation for a natural phenomena.
b.
is an educated guess.
c.
is less reliable than a hypothesis.
d.
will never be changed.
e.
none of the above.
2.
A group of very similar, interbreeding organisms belong to
the same
__________.
a.
kingdom
b.
phylum
c.
class
d.
genus
e.
species
3.
What determines the atomic number of an atom?
a.
Number of electrons in the outermost energy level.
b.
Total number of energy shells.
c.
Arrangement of neutrons in the atomic nucleus.
d.
Numbe
r of protons in the atomic nucleus.
e.
The total number of electrons and neutrons.
4.
A neutral solution...
a.
has no H
+
b.
has no OH
-
c.
has equal amounts of H
+
and OH
-
d.
is hydrophobic
e.
has a pH of 0
5.
What type of chemical reaction results i
n the breakdown of organic
polymers into their respective subunits?
a.
Condensation
b.
Oxidation
c.
Hydrolysis
d.
Ionization
e.
Reduction
6. Of what are fats composed?
a.
Three glycerols and their fatty acids
b.
Three fatty acids and one glyce
rol
c.
One glycogen and two phospholipids
d.
Two fatty acids and one carboxyl acid
e.
Three oils and one glycerol
7. What determines the specific function of a protein?
a.
Exact sequence of amino acids
b.
Number of disulfide bonds
c.
A hydroph
ilic "head" attached to a hydrophobic "tail"
d.
Fatty acids as monomers
e.
The number of peptide bonds it contains
8.
If a plasma membrane is differentially permeable, the membrane:
a.
allows only water to pass through by osmosis
b.
is impermeable to lipid
-
solubl
e molecules
c.
only permits molecules to pass through by diffusion
d.
cannot regulate passage of materials unless aided by expenditure of
energy
e.
allows some molecules to pass through more rapidly than others
9. Adhesion of animal tissues is accomplished by
cell
-
to
-
cell junctions called:
a.
Desmosomes
b.
Tight junctions
c.
Gap junctions
d.
Plasmodesmata
e.
Cell plates
10.
The DNA in a prokaryotic cell is contained in the _____________ region of
the cytoplasm.
a.
nucleus
b.
nucleolus
c.
nucleoid
d.
nuclear
e.
nucleic
11.
The cytoskeleton is to the cell what ....
a.
bones are to humans
b.
a frame is to a house
c.
a desk is to an office
d.
a and b
e.
all of these
12. Which pair of organelles is responsible for energy supply to eukaryotic
cells?
a.
Ribosomes and mitochondria
b.
Chlo
roplasts and ribosomes
c.
Golgi bodies and ribosomes
d.
Mitochondria and lysosomes
e.
Chloroplasts and mitochondria
13.
Energy transformations are not 100% efficient; often energy in the form of
______________ is released, which fulfills the second la
w of
thermodynamics.
a.
nuclear
b.
chemical
c.
heat
d.
elastic
e.
kinetic
14.
Coenzymes function by ...
a.
binding to the enzyme and weakening the bonds of the substrate.
b.
binding to the substrate and weakening the bonds of the enzyme.
c.
binding two or more substr
ates and joining them.
d.
helping substrates find enzymes.
e.
joining together to form an enzyme.
15. During glycolysis, what is the net gain of ATP molecules produced?
a.
2
b.
4
c.
34
d.
36
e.
38
16. Strenuous exercise increases CO
2
product
ion.
Specifically
, where is the
CO
2
coming from?
a.
glycolysis
b.
C
3
cycle
c.
Krebs cycle
d.
chemiosmosis
e. fermentation
17.
Which of the following descriptions bets fits the class of molecules known
as nucleotides?
a.
a nitrogen base and a phosphate
group
b.
a nitrogen base and a five
-
carbon sugar
c.
a five
-
carbon sugar, a phosphate group, and a purine
d.
a nitrogen base, a phosphate group, and a five
-
carbon sugar
e.
a pyrimidine, a purine, and a five
-
carbon sugar
18.
Semi
-
conservative DNA replication means:
a
.
The old DNA is completely broken down
b.
The old DNA remains completely intact
c.
A pairs with T and G pairs with C
d.
Only half of the DNA is replicated
e.
Each new DNA molecule has half of the old one
19.
Transfer RNA:
a.
Is a nucleic acid that a
lone codes for the primary structure of a protein
b.
Is made directly from DNA during transcription
c.
Is incorporated into the structure of ribosomes
d.
Is larger in size if the protein to be made is longer in amino acid
sequence
e.
Transfers amino ac
ids from proteins to mRNA
20. For a mutation to affect evolution, it must occur in:
a.
Somatic cells
b.
Prokaryotic cells
c.
Diploid cells
d.
Gametes
e.
Eukaryotic cells
21. During which stage of mitosis do chromosomes line up at the equator o
f the
spindle apparatus?
a.
Prophase
b.
Metaphase
c.
Anaphase
d.
Telophase
e.
The chromosomes do not line up at all
22.
Which of the following is haploid?
a.
zygote
b.
gamete
c.
muscle cell
d.
embryo
e.
brain cell
23.
Between the two divisions of meiosis there is:
a.
Crossing
-
over
b.
A pairing of homologous chromosomes
c.
Replication of selected genes
d.
Segregation and independent assortment of chromosomes
e.
No chromosome replication
24.
An individual with two identical alleles of a gene is said to be _____
______.
a.
homozygous
b.
heterozygous
c.
multizygous
d.
haploid
e.
diploid
25. Although the law of independent assortment is generally applicable, when
two loci are on the same chromosome the phenotypes of the progeny
sometimes do not fit the phenotypes predicted.
This is due to
a.
translation.
b.
inversions.
c.
chromatid abnormalities.
d.
linkage.
e.
reciprocal chromosome exchange.
26.
Small accessory chromosomes found in bacteria and useful in recombinant
DNA procedures are called:
a.
plasmids
b.
palindromes
c.
centr
ioles
d.
bacteriophages
e.
viruses
27.
The "DNA fingerprints" of twins will be the same.
a.
always true
b.
always false
c.
only true for fraternal twins
d.
only true for identical twins
28. Genetic drift results in a change in gene frequencies because:
a.
gene flow
within the population is less than gene flow between
populations.
b.
reproduction is non
-
random within the population.
c.
the population size is so small that chance occurrences can alter gene
frequencies.
d.
the population has not yet stabilized.
e.
the population is so large that natural selection has little noticeable
affect.
29. Which of these interactions affects natural selection?
a.
Competition
b.
Predation
c.
Altruism
d.
Parasitism
e.
All of these
30. Organisms are grouped together
using all of the following ways
except
:
a.
biochemical similarities
b.
anatomical similarities
c.
having the same type of genetics
d.
abilities to fly or swim well
31. Which of the following is
not
one of the kingdoms recognized by modern
biologists?
a.
Protista
b.
Mon
era
c.
Fungi
d.
Protozoa
e.
Animalia
32. Which of these is
not
characteristic of most animals?
a.
reproduce sexually
b.
no cell wall
c.
swiftly respond to stimuli
d. motility at some stage of the life cycle
e.
autotrophic
33. Most body systems maintain ho
meostasis through
a.
Positive feedback systems
b.
Negative feedback systems
c.
Monitoring systems
d.
Alternating systems
34. Groups of tissues that function together form a(n)
a.
Organ
b.
Organ system
c.
System
d.
Individual
35.
What is the ad
vantage of a closed circulatory system over an open one?
a.
It can carry more blood.
b.
It can move blood more efficiently.
c.
There are more blood cells in a closed system.
d.
Blood flows more slowly in a closed system.
e.
The blood comes nearer to e
ach cell.
36. Which set of chambers supplies blood to the pulmonary circulation?
a.
The atria
b.
The ventricles
c.
The right atrium and right ventricle
d.
The left atrium and left ventricle
37. The maximum number of molecules of oxygen that can
bind with one
molecule of human hemoglobin is?
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
4
38. Which of the following is
not
part of the lymphatic system?
a.
Thymus
b.
Thyroid
c.
Spleen
d.
All of the above are part of the lymphatic system.
e.
None of the above are par
t of the lymphatic system.
39.
In the lungs, oxygen moves from air to blood by
a.
Osmosis
b.
Bulk flow
c.
Active transport
d. Facilitated diffusion
e. Simple diffusion
40.
“Smoker’s cough” is the result of:
a.
irritation in the throat
b.
dry lungs
c.
nicot
ine
d.
excess mucus
e.
emphysema
41. Bile aids in fat digestion by
a.
Acting as an emulsifier, thus exposing a large surface area to enzymes.
b.
Acting as a lipid
-
digesting enzyme.
c.
Digesting lipids into smaller components; these can now be digested
fur
ther by pancreatic enzymes.
d.
Both b and c are correct.
42. Where does digestion begin?
a.
Mouth
b.
Pharynx
c.
Stomach
d.
Small intestine
e.
Colon
43.
This is
not
a function of the stomach.
a.
storage of digesting food
b.
production of bile
c.
digestion
of protein
d.
mechanical digestion
e.
chemical digestion
44.
Long loops of Henle promote....
a.
decreased retention of large proteins
b.
decreased secretion of wastes
c.
increased secretion of wastes
d.
decreased retention of water
e.
increased retention of water
45.
U
rine leaves each mammalian kidney through a muscular tube known
as the
a.
Urethra
b.
Ureter
c.
Bladder
d.
Collecting duct
e. Nephridium
46.
How does a natural killer cell prevent infection?
a.
By enzymatically degrading viruses.
b.
By destroyin
g the cells infected with a virus.
c.
By secreting proteins into the viral membrane, thereby opening a large
pore in the membrane.
d.
Both a and c are correct.
e.
All statements are correct.
47. Different B cells produce different antibodies by
a.
activating new ribosomes
b.
activating different enzymes
c.
genetic recombination
d.
all of these
48. Life
-
long immunity to a disease after a vaccination is due to the presence of
a. red blood cells
b.
helper T cells
c.
killer T cells
d.
memo
ry B cells
49. Which type of cell is destroyed by the AIDS virus?
a.
Suppressor T cells
b.
Killer T cells
c.
Helper T cells
d.
B cells
e.
Plasma cells
50. Hormones that react with protein receptors on the surface of the target cell
are
a.
Peptide
-
based
b.
Amino acid
-
based
c.
Steroids
d.
Both a and b are correct
e.
All of the above are correct
51. The connection between the two control systems of the body, the nervous
and endocrine systems is the
a.
pituitary gland
b.
adrenal gland
c.
hypothalamus
d.
thyroid
52. If you eat a meal that is high in sugar, which hormone will stimulate your
cells to make fat to store the excess?
a.
Glucagon
b.
Glycogen
c.
Insulin
d.
Thyroxine
e.
Glucocorticoids
53.
The resting potential is al
ways ____________ inside the cell and relatively
____________ outside the cell.
a.
Larger, smaller
b.
Smaller, larger
c.
Negative, positive
d.
Positive, negative
54.
The intensity of the stimulus is indicated by the _________ of the action
potential.
a.
frequency
b.
durati
on
c.
speed
d.
intensity
e.
loss
55. The receptor molecules affected by light rays are
a.
In the ganglion cells
b.
In the lens
c.
Mechanoreceptors
d.
Photopigments
e.
Pacinian corpuscles
56. The right cerebral hemisphere
a.
Is better than the left at l
anguage
b.
Is better than the left at math
c.
Controls the left side of the body
d.
Receives input from the right eye only
57.
The term "motor unit" refers to
a.
an entire skeletal muscle
b.
a group of sarcomeres in a muscle fiber
c.
all of the skeletal muscle
in one body part
d.
all of the motor neurons going to a skeletal muscle
e.
a group of muscle fibers with which a neuron synapses
58. Osteoporosis may occur when
a.
The activity of osteoclasts exceeds that of the osteoblasts.
b.
The activity of the osteoblas
ts exceeds that of the osteoclasts.
c.
The activity of the osteoclasts exceeds that of the osteocytes.
d.
The activity of the osteocytes exceeds that of the osteoclasts.
59. Which of these is
not
a function of the vertebrate endoskeleton?
a.
Provides
protection
b.
Provides support
c.
Makes blood cells
d.
Conducts sound
e.
All of the above are true
60. The hormones produced by the pituitary that are primarily responsible for
the onset of puberty are
a.
estrogen and testosterone
b.
human chorio
nic hormone (HCG)
c.
lutenizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
d.
all of these
61. The mother's side of the placenta is derived from the
a.
Cervix
b.
Myometrium
c.
Vagina
d.
Endometrium
e.
Fallopian tube
62.
The acrosome of
the sperm contains enzymes. The function of the
acrosome is to
a.
digest the jelly
-
like vitelline coat surrounding the unfertilized egg
b.
dissolve the mucus in the female reproductive tract
c.
lower the activation energy of fertilization
d.
all of the
above
63.
Vasectomy or tubal ligation results in
a.
A lack of semen or menstrual flow
b.
Atrophy of the gonads
c.
A lack of sex hormones
d.
An interruption of the path taken by egg or sperm
e.
Inability to produce eggs or sperm
64. Differentiatio
n is
a.
The process in which different tissues specialize into specific organs.
b.
The process in which different cells develop into different cell types.
c.
The process in which different organs specialize in function.
d.
The process in which the embr
yo specializes different sexual organs.
65. Most fetuses can first survive outside the womb after a minimum of
a.
Five months
b.
Six months
c.
Seven months
d.
Eight months
Use the following to answer questions 66 and 67.
Indicate whether each o
f the following applies to:
a. innate behavior
b. learned behavior
c. both innate and learned behavior
d. neither innate nor learned behavior
66.
a human shows a knee
-
jerk reflex
67.
a dog drools at the sound of a can opener
68. Which factor relatin
g to visual communication is
not
adaptive?
a.
it is quiet
b.
it is quickly perceived
c.
it doesn't produce an odor
d.
it can communicate the degree of an animal's readiness for a particular
behavior
e. it may attract predators
69.
There are 150 s
potted owls in an old
-
growth forest patch in western
Oregon. A biologist tracking the birds saw that in one year, 25 new birds
were hatched, and 5 died. Thus r N =
a.
170
b.
145
c.
2
d.
6
e.
20
70.
An ecosystem's carrying capacity for a population i
s determined by all of the
following factors
except
:
a.
Space
b.
Energy
c.
Water
d.
Food
e.
Competition
71.
In interspecific competition,
a.
both species benefit from the interaction because each species expands
its ecological niche
b.
both species
are harmed because access to resources is reduced
c.
one species is harmed because only one species can expand its
ecological niche
d.
either a or b may be true
e.
either a or c may be true
72.
Net primary production is
a.
energy that photosynthetic
organisms make available to other
organisms over a given time
b.
energy stored by secondary consumers from primary biomass
c.
energy made by autotrophs minus energy consumed by heterotrophs,
and measured as biomass
d.
heterotrophic production per unit l
and per unit time
e.
heterotrophic production minus autotrophic production per unit land per
unit time
73. Phosphate fertilizers have increased the amount of phosphate in lakes and
other bodies of water. What effect does this have on the producers in
the
water?
a.
It kills them.
b.
It stimulates their growth.
c.
It increases their likelihood of getting eaten.
d.
It causes them to form toxic compounds.
e.
It reduces their photosynthetic capacity.
74.
The earth is generally hotter at the equator b
ecause
a.
The earth's rotation on a tilted axis creates more atmospheric friction at
the equator.
b.
The natural curve of the earth places the equator nearer the sun.
c.
The sun shines over the equator more hours in the day.
d.
There are large oceans n
ear the equator to absorb large amounts of
heat.
e.
The sun's rays strike the earth at nearly a right angle at the equator.
75.
The greatest diversity of plants and animals is found in the
a.
Temperate deciduous forest
b.
Tropical rain forest
c.
C
haparial
d.
Taiga
e.
Savanna
Answer Key
1.
a
36.
b
71.
b
2.
e
37.
d
72.
a
3.
d
38.
b
73.
b
4.
c
39.
e
74.
e
5.
c
40.
d
75.
b
6.
b
41.
a
7.
a
42.
a
8.
e
43.
b
9.
a
44.
e
10.
c
45.
b
11.
d
46.
b
12.
e
47.
c
13.
c
48.
d
14.
a
49.
c
15.
a
50.
d
16.
c
51.
c
17.
d
52.
c
18.
e
53.
c
19.
b
54.
a
20.
d
55.
d
21.
b
56.
c
22.
b
57.
e
23.
e
58.
a
24.
a
59.
e
25.
d
60.
c
26.
a
61.
d
27.
d
62.
a
28.
c
63.
d
29.
e
64.
b
30.
d
65.
c
31.
d
66.
a
32.
e
67.
b
33.
b
68.
e
34.
a
69.
e
35.
b
70.
e
Obj
ectives According to Biology 103 Course Outline
*Note: first number is unit, second number is outcome, third number is objective
1.
1.1.3
36.
5.2.2
71.
7.2.2
2.
1.1.4
37.
5.2.3
72.
7.3.1
3.
2.1.1
38.
5.2.5
73.
7.3.3
4.
2.1.4
39.
5.3.
2
74.
7.4.1
5.
2.2.2
40.
5.3.3
75.
7.4.3
6.
2.2.4
41.
5.4.3
7.
2.2.5
42.
5.4.2
8.
2.4.1
43.
5.4.2
9.
2.4.3
44.
5.5.2
10.
2.5.2
45.
5.5.3
11.
2.5.3
46.
5.6.1
12.
2.5.3
47.
5.6.2
13.
2.3.2
48.
5.6.5
14.
2.3.4
49.
5.6.7
15.
2.6.2
50.
5.7.1
16.
2.6.3
51.
5.7.3 and 5.8.1
17.
3.1.1
52.
5.7.3
18.
3.1.3
53.
5.8.2
19.
3.2.2
54.
5.8.3
20.
3.2.3
55.
5.8.9
21.
3.3.5
56.
5.8.6
22.
3.3.10
57.
5.9.1
23.
3.3.9
58.
5.9.3
24.
3.4.1
59.
5.9.2
25.
3.4.3
60.
6.1.2 and 6.1.4
26.
3.5.1
61.
6.1.6
27.
3.5.3
62.
6.1.6
28.
4.1.4
63.
6.1.8
29.
4.1.4
64.
6.2.2
30.
4.2.1
65.
6.2.3
31.
4.2.2
66.
6.3.1
32.
4.3.1
67.
6.3.1
33.
5.1.1
68.
6.3.2
34.
5.1.3
69.
7.1.1
35.
5.2.1
70.
7.1.2
No comments:
Post a Comment