1. Which of
the following is/are characteristic of living organisms?
a. Organic structure
b. Responsiveness to stimuli
c. Maintenance of homeostasis
d. b and c are correct
e. a, b, and c are correct
2. An
organism's ability to maintain internal stability when the external environment
changes is termed:
a. Natural selection
b. Mutation
c. Responsiveness
d. Metabolism
e. Homeostasis
3. Reproduction
always involves...
a. passing DNA from parent to offspring
b. two parents
c. copulation
d. sperm and egg
e. all of these
4. A mutation
is
a. a physical deformity
b. a change in DNA sequence
c. a dose of radiation
d. a defective egg or sperm cell
e. the inability to speak
5. The basic
difference between a prokaryotic cell and a eukaryotic cell is that the
prokaryotic cell:
a. Possesses membrane-bound organelles
b. Lacks DNA
c. Lacks a nuclear envelope
d. Is usually considerably larger
e. Is structurally more complex
6. A
scientific explanation that is tentative and requires more investigation is
termed a/an:
a. Theory
b. Fact
c. Control
d. Hypothesis
e. Observation
7. Why do
animals require "food" for survival?
a. Food is a source of energy.
b. Necessary chemicals are provided by food.
c. Food is a primary source of water for all
animals.
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c
8. One ml of
an experimental drug diluted in a saline solution is injected into 20 pregnant
mice to determine possible side effects.
Which of the following is a suitable "control" for this
experiment?
a. 20 male mice injected with 1 ml of saline
b. 20 male mice injected with 1 ml of the drug
c. 20 pregnant mice injected with 2 ml of the drug
d. 20 non-pregnant mice injected with 1 ml of the
drug
e. 20 pregnant mice injected with 1 ml of saline
9. The
smallest unit of life is the __________.
10. The
__________ molecule stores all the hereditary information of an organism.
Choose the characteristic of a living organism that
best corresponds to the numbered statement.
Selections may be used once, more than once, or not al all.
a. Growth
b. Reproduction
c. Homeostasis
d. Evolve
e. Response to stimuli
11. A sunflower
follows the sun as it move across the sky during the day.
12. What
determines the atomic number of an atom?
a. Number of electrons in the outermost energy
level.
b. Total number of energy shells.
c. Arrangement of neutrons in the atomic nucleus.
d. Number of protons in the atomic nucleus.
e. The total number of electrons and neutrons
13. Which four
elements make up approximately 96% of living matter?
a. carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen
b. carbon, sulfur, phosphorus, hydrogen
c. carbon, sodium, chlorine, magnesium
d. carbon, oxygen, sulfur, calcium
e. oxygen, hydrogen, calcium, sodium
14. In an atom
of an element, __________ have a negative charge, __________ have a positive
charge and __________ have a neutral charge.
15. An atom's
nucleus is composed of:
a. protons
b. neutrons
c. protons and electrons
d. protons and neutrons
e. neutrons and electrons
16. Which has a
pH > 7?
a. Coca-cola
b. Bleach
c. Vinegar
d. Tomatoes
e. Rain
17. Which of
the following is represented by the general formula CH±O?
a. Sugars
b. Fats
c. Nucleic acids
d. Amino acids
e. Cholesterol
18. All the
following statements are true of the FIRST law of thermodynamics except:
a. The amount of useful energy decreases.
b. The first law of thermodynamics is often called
the law of the conservation of energy.
c. The total amount of energy within an isolated
system remains the same.
d. One form of energy may be converted to a
different form of energy.
e. All are true of the first law.
19. The energy
of movement is __________ energy and stored energy is referred to as __________
energy.
20. In
exergonic chemical reactions:
a. Reactants have more energy than products.
b. Reactants have less energy then products.
c. Reactants and products possess equal amounts of
energy.
d. Energy is stored by the reactions.
e. Catalysts are required.
21. What is the
ultimate source of energy for most forms of life on Earth?
a. Heat energy
b. Solar energy
c. Thermal energy
d. Chemical energy
e. Nuclear energy
22. The
metabolism of a cell is the sum of all its chemical reactions.
a. True
b. False
23. To say a
cell is "differentially permeable" means:
a. It has different sized perforations in the
membrane.
b. It is permeable to different substances than
other cells.
c. Only certain molecules can pass through.
d. Sometimes water passes through, and sometimes
it can't.
e. Permeability depends on gradient differences.
24. The
phospholipid contains two different parts, a _________ head and a pair of
__________ tails.
25. The
diffusion of water molecules across a differentially permeable membrane is
termed:
a. Facilitated diffusion
b. Hydrolysis
c. Active transport
d. Exocytosis
e. Osmosis
26. If red
blood cells are taken from the body and placed in a hypertonic solution, what
happens to the cells?
a. The cells swell and burst because water moves
into the cells.
b. The cells shrivel up because water leaves the
cells.
c. The cells remain unchanged due to equal solute
concentration inside and outside the cells.
d. The cells remain unchanged due to equal water
concentrations inside and outside the cells.
e. They become white blood cells.
27. What is
active transport?
a. Diffusion of molecules within a cell.
b. Movement of molecules into or out of a cell
against a concentration gradient.
c. Movement of molecules into or out of a cell
down a concentration gradient.
d. The movement of molecules into or out of a cell
using special proteins and not requiring an expenditure of energy.
e. Rapid movement of molecules in a solution.
28. Carrier
molecules in the plasma membrane are only required for active transport.
a. True
b. False
29. What is a
major component of primary cell walls of plants?
a. Chitin
b. Cellulose
c. Pectin
d. Lignin
e. Protein
30. The urinary
bladder is protected from leaking due to cell-to-cell junctions called:
a. Desmosomes
b. Tight junctions
c. Gap junctions
d. Plasmodesmata
e. Stretch receptors
31. All cells
possess all the following components except:
a. Cytoplasm
b. Genetic material
c. Nuclear membrane
d. Plasma cell membrane
e. Ribosomes
32. Membranes
are composed of:
a. sugar, protein, cholesterol
b. protein, cholesterol, triglycerides
c. cholesterol, sugar, phospholipids
d. phospholipids, protein, sugar
e. triglycerides, sugar, protein
33. Prokaryotic
as well as eukaryotic cells possess:
a. Mitochondria
b. Chloroplasts
c. A cytoskeleton
d. Ribosomes
e. A nucleus
34. Which is a
difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
a. Prokaryotes have RNA, eukaryotes have DNA
b. Prokaryotes have DNA, eukaryotes have RNA
c. Prokaryotes have a nucleus, eukaryotes have a
nucleoid
d. Prokaryotes have a nucleoid, eukaryotes have a
nucleus
e. Prokaryotes have a cell wall, eukaryotes do not
35. Ribosomes
are the site of synthesis of:
a. DNA
b. RNA
c. Proteins
d. Nucleoli
e. Glucose
36. The Golgi
packages materials into _________ for transport or export.
a. organelles
b. plastids
c. vesicles
d. microns
e. nucleoli
37. Cholorphyll
is found specifically in the:
a. Plasma membrane
b. Stroma
c. Cytoplasm
d. Matrix
e. Thylakoid membrane
38. Which of
the following does not possess a double membrane?
a. Mitochondrion
b. Nuclear envelope
c. Ribosome
d. Plastid
e. Chloroplast
39. All the
following are important functions of the cytoskeleton except:
a. Storage of food molecules
b. Support of organelles
c. Movement of organelles
d. Maintenance of shape
e. Maintenance of organization in the cell
Matching--Select the organelle that is the most
appropriate batch for the numbered statement. Letters may be used once, more
than once or not at all.
a.
Mitochondria
b. Golgi
bodies
c. Rough
Endoplasmic reticulum
d.
Lysosomes
e.
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
40. Digests
damaged organelles.
41. Sorts our
mixtures of protein and sends them to their proper destination.
42. Site of
protein synthesis.
43. Site of
cellular respiration.
44. Makes
steroid hormones.
45. Responsible
for most of a muscle cell's ATP generation.
46. Which
statement is false?
a. Plants require sunlight to photosynthesize.
b. CO± is essential to glucose synthesis.
c. Plants are inefficient at light capture.
d. Plants require no oxygen for their metabolism.
e. Photosythesis is endergonic.
47. The process
of photosynthesis converts solar energy into __________ energy stored in the
bonds of glucose and oxygen.
48. What are
the three reactants required for photosynthesis?
Indicate during which part of photosynthesis each of
the following occurs.
a. Light-dependent reactions
b. Light-independent reactions
c. Both
d. Neither
49. ATP is
synthesized
50. O± is formed
51. NADPH is
formed
52. Electron
transport system
53. Sunlight is
required
54. Water is
required
55. Light-dependent
photosynthetic reactions produce:
a. ATP, NADPH, O±
b. ATP, NADPH, CO±
c. Glucose, ATP, O±
d. Glucose, ATP, CO±
e. ATP, NADPH, H±O
56. Where does
the O± released during
photosynthesis come from?
a. CO±
b. H±O
c. ATP
d. C•H¯±O•
e. RuBP
57. Carbon
dioxide is required in the light-dependent reaction.
a. True
b. False
58. Where is
glucose synthesized?
a. Thylakoids
b. Cytoplasm
c. Matrix
d. Stroma
e. Intermembrane compartment
59. Under
anaerobic conditions, many bacteria use the process of __________ to obtain
ATP.
60. During
glycolysis, what is the net gain of ATP molecules produced?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 34
d. 36
e. 38
61. In
vertebrate animal cells, where does the synthesis of lactic acid occur?
a. Cytosol
b. Surface of ribosomes
c. Mitochondrial matrix
d. Mitochondrial inner membranes
e. Nucleus
Match the following statement with the process
when/where they occur.
a. Glycolysis
b. Krebs Cycle
c. ETS
d. All of these
e. None of these
62. No ATP is
produced
63. The most
ATP is produced (a, b, or c)
64. Occur(s) in
the cytoplasm
65. Occur(s) in
a membrane
66. Requires
oxygen directly
67. Occur(s) in
plants
68. Uses
electron carriers
69. Chemiosmosis
in mitochondria directly results in the synthesis of:
a. NADH
b. FADH±
c. H±O
d. CoA
e. ATP
70. Glycolysis
and the Krebs cycle reactions occur in the mitochondria.
a. True
b. False
71. DNA has:
a. A, U, G, and C bases
b. Only C and T pyrimidine bases
c. Only A and G purine bases
d. C and T pyrimidine bases and A and G purine
bases
e. Both U and T bases
72. If amounts
of bases in a DNA molecule are measured, we find:
a. A = C and G = T
b. A = G and C = T
c. T = A and C = G
d. No two bases would be equal in amount
e. That all bases are equal in amount
73. Purine
bases pair with other purine bases in DNA.
a. True
b. False
74. The DNA of
a certain organism has cytosine as 20% of its bases. What percentage of its bases
would be thymine?
a. 0%
b. 10%
c. 20%
d. 30%
e. 40%
75. For the DNA
sequence GCCTAT in one polynucleotide chain, the sequence found in the other
polynucleotide chain is:
a. CGGATA
b. GCCATA
c. CGGAUA
d. ATTCGC
e. GCCTAT
Indicate which of the following choices best answers
the statements:
a. DNA only
b. RNA only
c. Both DNA and RNA
d. None of these
76. Possesses
guanine.
77. Possesses
ribose.
78. Possesses
phosphate groups.
79. Usually
double stranded.
80. DNA is
duplicated during:
a. Prophase
b. S phase
c. G¯ phase
d. G± phase
e. Metaphase
81. DNA
replication occurs semiconservatively in which the two original strands stay
together and the two new strands stay together.
a. True
b. False
82. The
anticodon for AUC is:
a. TAG
b. AUC
c. GAU
d. CUA
e. UAG
83. The number
of nucleotides in a codon is:
a. 3
b. 4
c. 20
d. 64
e. A variable number
84. The process
of copying genetic information from DNA to RNA is called:
a. Translation
b. Transformation
c. Replication
d. Transcription
e. Polymerization
85. A type of
RNA that binds to a specific amino acid is:
a. Messenger RNA
b. Ribosomal RNA
c. Transfer RNA
d. Nuclear RNA
e. Cytoplasmic RNA
MATCHING TEST: Each choice may be used more than
once
Choices:
a. Transcription
b. Translation
c. Replication
d. Both transcription and translation
e. Cytokinesis
86. Occurs at
ribosomes
87. Anticodon-codon
pairing
88. Occurs
during interphase S
89. Choose the
answer that has these events of protein synthesis in the proper sequence
1. a tRNA
binds to the first codon
2. a
peptide bond forms
3. tRNA
leaves ribosome
4. ribosome
associates with mRNA
5. ribosome
moves down the mRNA by three bases
a. 1,3,2,4,5
b. 4,1,2,5,3
c. 5,4,3,2,1
d. 4,1,3,2,5
e. 2,4,5,1,3
90. Human body
cell nuclei contain:
a. 46 pairs of chromosomes
b. 44 pairs of chromosomes
c. 23 unpaired chromosomes
d. 22 pairs of chromosomes
e. 23 pairs of chromosomes
91. The longest
period of a cell's life cycle is:
a. Prophase
b. Telophase
c. Interphase
d. Anaphase
e. Metaphase
92. Cytokinesis
refers to the division of the:
a. Cytoplasm
b. Nucleus
c. Mitochondria
d. Centrioles
e. Chromosomes
93. Mitosis in
humans usually results in the formation of:
a. 2 diploid cells
b. 4 diploid cells
c. 2 haploid cells
d. 4 haploid cells
e. Sperm or egg cells
94. During
which stage of mitosis do sister chromatids move away from each other?
a. Prophase
b. Metaphase
c. Anaphase
d. Telophase
e. They do not move away from each other at all
Using the following stages of mitosis as answers,
indicate which best matches the following item(s):
a. Metaphase
b. Prophase
c. Telophase
d. Anaphase
e. None of the these
95. Chromosomes
line up along equator of cell.
96. Sister
chromatids move to opposite poles.
97. Nuclear
envelope reforms.
98. Nuclear
envelope disintegrates
99. Which of
the following is haploid (n)?
a. Zygote
b. Gamete (sex cell)
c. Muscle cell
d. Embryo
e. Brain cell
100. Crossing-over
occurs during meiosis II.
a. True
b. False
101. Synapsis
occurs during the first prophase of meiosis.
a. True
b. False
102. If a round
pea has a wrinkled parent, the round pea is:
a. RR
b. Rr
c. rr
d. Haploid
e. Recessive
103. If we
cross two pea plants each heterozygous for yellow seed color genes, the
expected ratio of yellow : green among the offspring will be:
a. 25% yellow : 75% green
b. 50% yellow : 50% green
c. 75% yellow : 25% green
d. 100% yellow
e. 100% green
104. The
genetic makeup of an individual is its:
a. Phenotype
b. Sex cells
c. Mutation
d. Gene pool
e. Genotype
105. If DdEe
were crossed with DDee, what proportion of the offspring are expected to
be DdEe:
a. 1/4
b. 3/4
c. 1/2
d. All
e. None
106. Black fur
in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Short tails (T) is dominant to long tails
(t). What proportion of the progeny of
the cross BbTt X BBtt will have black fur and long tails?
a. 1/16
b. 3/16
c. 6/16
d. 8/16
e. 9/16
107. Hemophilia
is a sex-linked recessive gene causing a blood disorder. What are the chances
that the daughter of a normal man and a heterozygous woman will have
hemophilia?
a. 0
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
e. 100%
108. Males
always inherit sex-linked traits from their fathers.
a. True
b. False
Indicate which of the choices best matches the
following statement(s):
a. Turner syndrome
b. Klinefelter syndrome
c. Trisomy X syndrome
d. XYY syndrome
e. Down syndrome
109. Have an
abnormal number of autosomes.
110. Short
females with webbed necks.
111. The most
common chromosome anomaly among newborns.
112. Sterile
males with some breast development.
Match the following answers in the best possible way
to the condition(s) listed below.
a. Sex-linked recessive
b. Simple dominant
c. Autosomal nondisjunction
d. Sex chromosomal nondisjunction
e. Recessive autosomal
113. Hemophilia
114. Tay-Sachs
disease
115. Klinefelter
syndrome
116. Manipulating
the molecular basis of inheritance by recombinant DNA technology is called:
a. Mendelian genetics
b. Biotechnology
c. DNA fingerprinting
d. Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)
e. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
117. Organisms
most commonly used in recombinant DNA research are:
a. Fruit flies
b. Bacteria
c. Viruses
d. Humans
e. Pea plants
118. Sexual
reproduction in humans is a natural method of DNA recombination.
a. True
b. False
119. __________
are small circular pieces of DNA molecules that are often used in the process
of transformation.
Answers
1. e
2. e
3. a
4. b
5. c
6. d
7. d
8. e
9. Cell
10. DNA
11. e
12. d
13. a
14. electrons;
protons; neutrons
15. d
16. b
17. a
18. a
19. kinetic;
potential
20. a
21. b
22. True
23. c
24. polar
and/or hydrophilic; nonpolar and/or hydrophobic
25. e
26. b
27. b
28. False
29. b
30. b
31. c
32. d
33. d
34. d
35. c
36. c
37. e
38. c
39. a
40. d
41. b
42. c
43. a
44. e
45. a
46. d
47. chemical
48. carbon
dioxide, water and light
49. a
50. a
51. a
52. a
53. a
54. a
55. a
56. b
57. False
58. d
59. fermentation
60. a
61. a
62. e
63. c
64. a
65. c
66. c
67. d
68. d
69. e
70. False
71. d
72. c
73. False
74. d
75. a
76. c
77. b
78. c
79. a
80. b
81. False
82. e
83. a
84. d
85. c
86. b
87. b
88. c
89. b
90. e
91. c
92. a
93. a
94. c
95. a
96. d
97. c
98. b
99. b
100. False
101. True
102. b
103. c
104. e
105. a
106. d
107. a
108. False
109. e
110. a
111. e
112. b
113. a
114. e
115. d
116. b
117. b
118. True
119. Plasmids
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